Misconception of the situation may be intentional
I suspect there is another reason for the difference in the percentage of those in poverty between urban and rural populations. The numbers of those in poverty are offset by the much larger number of people in urban areas that are above the poverty line. There would be many less affluent people in rural areas due to the stated benefit of more opportunities that exist in urban areas.
It takes education and training to get the jobs that lead to more income. Even with the greater number of better opportunities that exist in urban areas, do those in poverty qualify for jobs that allow them to cross the poverty line? Or, do they continue to live in squalid conditions while those in rural areas have access to a better quality of life and community despite their poverty?
